Trial test · Gynaecology Obstetrics Exam MCQs (Prometric)

Question 1 of 10

A woman presents with a history of irregular periods, excessive hair growth, and obesity. An ultrasound shows multiple cysts on the ovaries. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Cushing’s syndrome

Hypothyroidism

Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

Ovarian cancer

Question 2 of 10

A woman at 20 weeks' gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Ultrasound shows a retroplacental clot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Placenta previa

Ectopic pregnancy

Placental abruption

Preterm labor

Question 3 of 10

Hypothyroidism and infertility—target TSH during conception attempts?

>5 is fine

Iodine alone substitutes levothyroxine

<2.5 mIU/L.

No treatment needed

Question 4 of 10

Key risks of gonadotropin stimulation?

Hypothyroidism

Multiple gestation and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS).

Nephrolithiasis

Severe anemia in all

Question 5 of 10

Pregnancy of unknown location: stable patient, β-hCG 1,800 mIU/mL, nondiagnostic ultrasound. Appropriate management?

Emergent laparoscopy without signs of rupture

Serial β-hCG and repeat ultrasound in 48 hours.

Discharge with no follow-up

Immediate methotrexate

Question 6 of 10

Copper IUD user with intolerably heavy periods wants lighter menses while maintaining high efficacy. Best option?

Oral iron as definitive fix

Stop all contraception

Switch to a levonorgestrel-releasing IUD after counseling.

Add daily estrogen only

Question 7 of 10

A woman at 31 weeks’ gestation presents with painless vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals a placenta previa. What is the recommended management at this time?

Immediate cesarean delivery

Expectant management with close monitoring

Induction of labor

Emergency cerclage

Question 8 of 10

A 37-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea. She has a history of endometriosis. Ultrasound reveals bilateral endometriomas. What is the best treatment?

Laparoscopic excision

Observation

Hormonal therapy alone

Uterine artery embolization

Question 9 of 10

A patient at 38 weeks’ gestation has gestational hypertension with blood pressures consistently above 140/90 mm Hg. What is the next step in management?

Expectant management

Antihypertensive therapy alone

Cesarean delivery

Induction of labor at term

Question 10 of 10

A 27-year-old woman presents with hyperprolactinemia and amenorrhea. MRI shows a small pituitary adenoma. What is the best pharmacologic treatment?

Thyroid hormone replacement

Bromocriptine

Estrogen therapy

Cabergoline